As long as a funeral home has, indeed, been “family owned,” there is nothing irregular (or misleading) about the phrase mentioned. HOWEVER, if the firm should state something to the effect, “Jones (whatever) family owned since 1946 (whenever) when, in fact the Jones family has owned the firm only since 1988 (whenever) THAT would not only be misleading, but dishonest. Many firms (rightly so, I believe) want their public to know that they ARE “family owned” as opposed to being owned by a conglomerate headquartered half way across the country and managed by someone who may or may not have local ties to the community